Okay, so then some followup questions:
1. For the barter move - what's the difference between using 1 barter as leverage and rolling+hot vs using 1-barter for leverage and auto-scoring a 10+? Is this rule there as a money=power thing?
2. For manipulating a PC - Why don't you need leverage? Or I guess, why does the leverage come after the roll? This just isn't computing in my head.
For example:
"Keeler confesses her crush to Bran. She wants him to like her back. She hits the roll with a 7. “If you like me back, mark experience,” she says. “Wow I’d like to,” Bran’s player says, “and you’re sweet and all, but…” “Oh no!” Keeler’s player says. “Crushed!”
What's the leverage here? Did Keeler have any at all? Did she need to? What happened that allowed the use of a seduce or manipulate roll? Can PCs can just seduce/manipulate each other just because?
3. Assurance - Can you still seduce or manipulate someone if they're already planning on doing what you want? By this I mean taking the risk of making a move to mechanically insure the person does what you want.
For example, Skins says he'll guard the food storage, and thats cool, but I want to make sure he really guards it, and doesn't fuck off because Zipfly gives him the goggly eyes. I tell him that if he fucks this up there'll be hell to pay, and roll to manipulate. 10+. "Yeah sure boss, don't worry, I'll be cool." - and he will.
Does that sound right?